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was revolutionary catalunya a state
explain your answer
Oct 26, 2015
Nov 8, 2015
This question contains too many assumptions, the biggest one being that anarchists were somehow in a dominant position of public power -- presumably between July 20, 1936 and May 4, 1937. This was not the case; the "influential militants" of the CNT-FAI effectively allowed the Generalitat to continue to limp along all the way to the end of the Civil War. There was no attempt to disband the Catalan regional police, no attempt to expropriate and/or collectivize all private property, and only limited attempts to suppress non-revolutionary social formations. There were those among the CNT-FAI who would have liked for there to have been an anarchist state in Catalunya, but the majority of militants were content with public displays of anarchist power like the Control Patrols and neighborhood councils. Most believed that real power came from the street and not from government buildings; this was naive at best, and self-destructive when push came to shove. A significant faction of the UGT, and all the various political parties, remained actively anti-anarchist for the duration of the revolutionary upheaval in Catalunya. One must also consider the fact that not all members of the CNT were self-described anarchists (but those in the FAI were); this distinction also explains a lot about how policies were agreed upon and enforced (or not) during the time frame previously mentioned.
tl;dr: there was a state, but Catalunya wasn't anarchist.
Nov 1, 2015
anonymous, if you have a question about lawrence's points, then asking them in the comments is more effective. it would also be helpful to ask more specifically about what you don't understand about his post. do you not get the spelling of catalunya? do you not understand the distinction lawrence is drawing between the anarchists in that time and place vs what a state is?
or were you looking for an answer as brief and simple as your question, in which case you have the answer, NO.
Nov 2, 2015
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